QUESTION 1
1.1 Given sets A and B. Define what is meant by the statement A is equivalent to B. Denote this
equivalence by . A B (1)
1.2 If A and B are finite sets show that if A B then A B = , i.e. A and B have the same
cardinality. (3)
1.3 Show 2 i.e. 1,2,3,4... 1,4,9,16,... . Does this contradict 1.2 above ? (5)
1.4 Prove that sets equivalence “ ” as defined above is indeed an equivalence relation on the
subsets of a given universal set U. That is given sets A, B, C in U then
(i) A A
(ii) A B B A
(iii) & . A B B C A C
(Hint: Only explain what mapping you use in your claim, no need to prove bijectiveness of such
mapping)
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