Montrer que si $$\sum_{i=1}^{n}{p_i}=\sum_{i=1}^{n}{q_i}=1$$ alors $$\sum_{i=1}^{n}{p_i\ln(q_i)}\leq\sum_{i=1}^{n}{p_i\ln(p_i)}=1$$

asked by guest
on Sep 20, 2024 at 4:32 am



Mathbot Says...

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