If 𝑦 = cos(𝑚 𝑠𝑖𝑛−1𝑥), prove that (1 − 𝑥

2

)𝑦𝑛+2 − (2𝑛 + 1)𝑥 𝑦𝑛+1 + 𝑛(𝑛 + 1)𝑦𝑛 = 0

asked by guest
on Nov 16, 2024 at 3:35 am



Mathbot Says...

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