If π’ = sinβ1
(βπ₯
2 + π¦
2) then prove that
π₯
2π’π₯π₯ + 2π₯π¦π’π₯π¦ + π¦
2π’π¦π¦ = tan3
Mathbot Says...
I wasn't able to parse your question, but the HE.NET team is hard at work making me smarter.
If π’ = sinβ1
(βπ₯
2 + π¦
2) then prove that
π₯
2π’π₯π₯ + 2π₯π¦π’π₯π¦ + π¦
2π’π¦π¦ = tan3
I wasn't able to parse your question, but the HE.NET team is hard at work making me smarter.