Proof that, all bijective function is one-one function but its inverse is not true.
Mathbot Says...
I wasn't able to parse your question, but the HE.NET team is hard at work making me smarter.
Proof that, all bijective function is one-one function but its inverse is not true.
I wasn't able to parse your question, but the HE.NET team is hard at work making me smarter.