Prove that the function𝑓(𝑧)defined by𝑓(𝑧) =π‘₯3(1+𝑖)βˆ’π‘¦3(1βˆ’π‘–)π‘₯2+𝑦2, 0 π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑓(0) =0 is continuous and Cauchy – Riemann equations are satisfied at the origin, yet 𝑓′(0)does not exist.

asked by guest
on Nov 24, 2024 at 8:28 am



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